Wednesday, November 21, 2012

MODERN VERSION VIRGIN BIRTH

We often hear modern version supporters insist that no major doctrine is affected by the changes in the modern versions. The next several posts will blow that claim out of the water and prove that important doctrines are destroyed or heavily diluted. Here is a good example of how changing just one, or only a few, verses, can greatly eradicate a major biblical doctrine.

I claimed that the modern versions attacked the virgin birth by changing Isaiah 7:14 to things like "maiden" or "young woman" in the text or footnotes. The response I received was:

{{ No, you found ONE verse where the mention of maiden was made instead of virgin. Again, to even say it waters it down is stretching logic to the breaking point. }}

Okay, tell me how many other OT verses speak of the virgin birth. How many of them are clear, especially without this verse for support? Would a Jew be likely to receive Jesus as Messiah based on that?

Also, the verses where Joseph is called the "father" of Jesus in the narrative were mentioned. Joseph was not Jesus' Father.

How many verses clearly attest to the virgin birth? If you mess with just a few, especially the well-known ones like Isaiah 7:14 you have diluted a significant portion of that doctrine.

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

How many times does the word "virgin" appear in the Bible referring to the birth of Jesus? THREE! And the two in the NT refer to the one in the OT! If you mess with ONE, you have directly removed 33% of all the references and indirectly affected the other 2/3 adversely.


Matt 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Luke 1:27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.

Sometimes, a well-placed mistake can have serious repercussions. Remember, rat poison is 99% good rat food and only 1% sodium fluoride.

The word "virgin" in this context only appears three times in the Bible, and the two NT appearances are references to the lone OT verse. So to mess up just the ONE OT verse, indirectly messes up all three. The Greek word for virgin is unequivocal. The writers of the original Greek of Matthew and Luke believed Isaiah 7:14 referred specifically to a virgin.

In Luke 2:33 & 43, the MVs have the narrative of the Holy Spirit call Joseph the father of Jesus (which is not excusable as the case of Mary calling Joseph his father).

But that is not all:

Mat 1:25 KJV And knew her not till she had brought forth her FIRSTBORN son: and he called his name JESUS.

(NIV) Matt 1:25 But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.


Removing the key word "firstborn" certainly weakens the doctrine. Maybe she had previous sons with a different man in the NIV.

John 3:16 KJV For God so loved the world, that he gave his only BEGOTTEN Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

NIV John 3:16 "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

Jesus is not the "one and only Son" of God - *I* am also a son of God. Jesus is the only BEGOTTEN Son of God. This doctrinal error also warps the virgin birth.

John 1:14 KJV And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only BEGOTTEN of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

(NIV) John 1:14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Same mistake and warping again.

Removing "flesh" from 1 John 4:3 also weakens the incarnation of Jesus Christ.

So this is not a case of one estranged verse taken out of context. Here are seven verses on the subject of the virgin birth of Christ that are diluted - virtually every scripture that deals with the subject, even indirectly. The attack on the virgin birth is systemic.

How many other verses can be shown from the NIV that are solid on the virgin birth? If you can find seven, then the doctrine is diluted 50%. If you can find fourteen, the doctrine is still diluted 33%. Find 21 and you've improved to 25% dilution, which is still pretty awful.

**************************************

This article has a ton of errors and confusions, however this is interesting.

http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/virginprophecy.html

Isaiah 7:14  The Message Bible
has "a girl who is presently a virgin will get pregnant," which implies Brown's interpretation


That interpretation is that the virgin gets pregnant in the normal way, and then is no longer a virgin.

"So the Master is going to give you a sign anyway. Watch for this: A girl who is presently a virgin will get pregnant. She'll bear a son and name him Immanuel (God-With-Us)."

Steven Avery

*****


What kind of sign would that be? Is that the best the modern version god can do is tell us that a woman will get normally pregnant? Big deal. The Psychic Hotline can give better signs than that.

Someone who is a virgin and has not carnally known a man conceiving and giving birth - now that's a sign. That's something only God could do. 

Despite the fact that without the virgin birth, Jesus would've been born corrupted in sin like the rest of us, the virgin birth is not an important doctrine since the modern versions insist that no important doctrine is affected by their versions.

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Luke 1:31 & 34 And, behold, thou shalt
conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS. 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

Matt 1:18 & 25 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph,
before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

Not only do the modern versions violate the other scriptures pertaining to the doctrine of the incarnation (nativity), but they violate sanity to offer something so normal and common as a "sign". Even Benny Hinn gives better signs than that.

Sunday, November 18, 2012

ONE RAISIN TOO MANY?

Hosea 3:1 Then said the LORD unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the LORD toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine .

Here we see Israel being rebuked for their idolatry and drunkenness.

The modern version promoters will point out that the word for wine (enab) can refer to anything from the vine. True, but which one does it refer to here?

NASB: "... they turn to other gods and love raisin cakes."

NIV: "... they turn to other gods and love the
sacred raisin cakes."

ASV: "... they turn unto other gods, and love
cakes of raisins.

ESV: "... they turn to other gods and love
cakes of raisins."

CEV: "... they worship idols and enjoy the offering
cakes made with fruit ."

NLT: "... have turned to other gods and love to worship them."

HCSB: "... they turn to other gods and love
raisin cakes."

TNIV: "... they turn to other gods and love the
sacred raisin cakes."

Nkjv: "... who look to other gods and love the
raisin cakes of the pagans .

Is God condemning the eating of raisins? Do we have an epidemic of broken families, battered wives, adultery, or traffic fatalities because people are imbibing on raisins? Oh please.

Common sense and context indicate God is condemning alcoholic hooch, not raisins or fruit cakes.

What possible motive would a modern translator have for getting rid of an obvious reference to booze? Maybe some of them take a nip now and then?

THE FIRE TEST

There is one verse that makes the Bible issue and the motives of the translators as clear as if they were purified by fire.

The Hebrew word Elohim and Aramaic Elahin can mean either God or the gods. However, as with most words, the context usually makes it clear.

Read through Daniel chapter 3 and check all the times where either God or gods is used, and you'll see any 10 year old would pick the right one every time.

Daniel 3 is where the three Hebrew children, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego and their "God" vied against Nebuchadnezzar and his Babylonian "gods". That makes it extremely easy to see that in statements like:

3:12 ... Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego; these men, O king, have not regarded thee: they serve not thy ELOHIM, nor worship the golden image which thou hast set up.

3:14 Nebuchadnezzar spake and said unto them, Is it true, O Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, do not ye serve my
ELOHIM ...?

3:18 ... O king, that we will not serve thy
ELOHIM

Are clearly speaking of Nebby's pagan gods.

Likewise these below are clearly speaking of the true Creator God of Israel:

3:17 If it be so, our ELOHIM whom we serve is able to deliver us from the burning fiery furnace ...And after the contest:

3:28 Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the ELOHIM of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego,

3:29 Therefore I make a decree, That every people, nation, and language, which speak any thing amiss against the
ELOHIM of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, shall be cut in pieces, and their houses shall be made a dunghill: because there is no other ELOHIM that can deliver after this sort.

Then we come to verse 25:

3:24-25  Then Nebuchadnezzar ... said ... Did not we cast three men bound into the midst of the fire? ... Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of ELOHIM [Elahin].

Judging by the context throughout the entire chapter, which is this obviously speaking of? Did Nebby's Babylonian gods win this battle, or did the God of Israel? The answer is so obvious anyone who denies it is simply being dishonest and worthy of ignoring.

So why do virtually ALL modern versions render the verse:

NASB: "... the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods !"

NLT: "And the fourth looks like
a god[a]!” Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 Aramaic like a son of the gods.

ESV: "... the appearance of the fourth is like
a son of the gods."

CEV: "... fourth one looks like
a god." [a] Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 a god: Aramaic, " a son of the gods."

NIV: "... the fourth looks like
a son of the gods."

TNIV: "... the fourth looks like
a son of the gods."

HCSB: "... the fourth looks like
a son of the gods."

NCV: "... The fourth man looks like
a son of the gods."

MSG: "... the fourth man looks like
a son of the gods!"

AMP: ... the form of the fourth is like
a son of the gods!

DAR: ... the appearance of the fourth is like
a son of God. 

Only the Nkjv even comes close, but contradicts their choice in their footnote:

Nkjv: "... the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”[a] Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 Or a son of the gods

Why would the modern version translators choose virtually unanimously to make the God who preserved the three Hebrew children through the fiery furnace to be the pagan, Babylonian gods of Nebuchadnezzar? What possibly could be their motive and inspiration to choose so?

This one example exposes the infidelity and satanic inspiration of the modern versions. We are left with either the KJB or NOTHING.

inSPIRation

2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God ...

Does "inspiration" mean "God breathed" as the scholars insist - or is it connected with the Spirit (inSPIRation/SPIRit) making His words KNOWN to us?

Job 32:8 ... the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.

Prov 1:23 ... I will pour out my spirit unto you, I will make known my words unto you.

1 Cor 12:8 For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;


When comparing spiritual words (scripture) with spiritual words (1 Cor 12:8), it looks like inspiration has to do with God making His word known to his people. That said, which group of people KNOW they have God's word and which are trying to perpetually piece it together with mss and scraps and never know it for certain?

INCORRUPTIBLE

1 Pet 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

If the word of God is INCORRUPTIBLE, how can a Christian think a modern version, that he admits contains errors, could be considered the word of God? And how could a Christian believe there is no PERFECT (UNCORRUPTED) version available in the world's most widespread language? Or that there has not been an incorruptible Bible in existence for the past 400 years, even though the verse says it will abide for ever?

You want a verse that says the King James Bible is the pure word of God? There you have it. If the KJB has not been the INCORRUPTIBLE word of God for the past 400 years, what has been? Or is this verse a lie?

*THOU* SHALT BE SAVED

Acts 16:31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

We know that those "archaic thees and thous" specify "you" in the SINGULAR. Is that important? These are probably the two most used salvation verses that use this expression. The KJB makes it clear that salvation is an INDIVIDUAL things. Let's look at some of the most popular modern versions.

NIV

31 They replied, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved ­you and your household.”

9 If
you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 

Nkjv

31 So they said, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.”

9 that if
you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 

ESV

31 And they said, "Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household."

9 because, if
you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 

CEV

31 They replied, "Have faith in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved! This is also true for everyone who lives in your home."

9 So
you will be saved, if you honestly say, "Jesus is Lord," and if you believe with all your heart that God raised him from death. 

HCSB

31 So they said, "Believe on the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved­you and your household."

9 if
you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 

Besides the heresy of saying people need to parrot words "Jesus is Lord", or confess that Jesus is Lord (rather than confess "THE Lord Jesus" as Saviour) every one of the modern versions uses the ambiguous "you" EVERY time.

Is salvation an issue where we want ambiguity and confusion? The KJB gives us absolute clarity.

A group "you" is what happens in denominational "Confirmation", where a group chants what they are told, but most do not make an INDIVIDUAL confession of Christ and leave the "Confirmation" as a "twofold child of hell".

Once again, so much for the claim that modern versions don't dilute any important doctrines. And so much for the claim that "thee and thou" are archaic terms that don't matter". A seemingly innocuous change can have major ramifications about one of the most important doctrines in the scripture.

Stick with the tried, tested, and proven KJB.

"YOU WORSHIP A BOOK!"

King James advocates are often accused of making an idol out of the KJB and worshipping a book instead of God. Is this accusation legitimate? Is it a problem to worship God's word?

We LOVE the Bible. We BELIEVE the Bible. We don't pray to it.

Acts 13:48  And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and
glorified the word of the Lord ...

2 Thes 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the
word of the Lord may have free course, and be glorified ...

Ps 56:10 In God will I
praise his word: in the LORD will I praise his word.

Webster's 1828:

GLORIFIED: Honored; dignified; exalted to glory.

WORSHIP: 1. Excellence of character; dignity; worth; worthiness.
v. 2. To respect; to honor ... 3. To honor ...


If they're not the same thing, they're close enough that the issue is purely semantical. But, to be technical, we do GLORIFY and PRAISE the word of God.

Isa 42:8 I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another ...

It it perfectly scriptural to praise and glorify the word of God, yet the Lord will not give His glory to any other. The only reconciliation for that is that when we glorify God's word, we are glorifying God Himself.

So to those who claim our problem is that we are worshipping the Bible, your problem is that you are not glorifying or praising God if you don't.