THE FIRE TEST

There is one verse that makes the Bible issue and the motives of the translators as clear as if they were purified by fire.

The Hebrew word Elohim and Aramaic Elahin can mean either God or the gods. However, as with most words, the context usually makes it clear.

Read through Daniel chapter 3 and check all the times where either God or gods is used, and you'll see any 10 year old would pick the right one every time.

Daniel 3 is where the three Hebrew children, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego and their "God" vied against Nebuchadnezzar and his Babylonian "gods". That makes it extremely easy to see that in statements like:

3:12 ... Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego; these men, O king, have not regarded thee: they serve not thy ELOHIM, nor worship the golden image which thou hast set up.

3:14 Nebuchadnezzar spake and said unto them, Is it true, O Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, do not ye serve my ELOHIM ...?

3:18 ... O king, that we will not serve thy ELOHIM …

Are clearly speaking of Nebby's pagan gods.

Likewise these below are clearly speaking of the true Creator God of Israel:

3:17 If it be so, our ELOHIM whom we serve is able to deliver us from the burning fiery furnace ...And after the contest:

3:28 Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the ELOHIM of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego,

3:29 Therefore I make a decree, That every people, nation, and language, which speak any thing amiss against the ELOHIM of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, shall be cut in pieces, and their houses shall be made a dunghill: because there is no other ELOHIM that can deliver after this sort.

Then we come to verse 25:

3:24-25  Then Nebuchadnezzar ... said ... Did not we cast three men bound into the midst of the fire? ... Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of ELOHIM [Elahin].

Judging by the context throughout the entire chapter, which is this obviously speaking of? Did Nebby's Babylonian gods win this battle, or did the God of Israel? The answer is so obvious anyone who denies it is simply being dishonest and worthy of ignoring.

So why do virtually ALL modern versions render the verse:

NASB: "... the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods !"

NLT: "And the fourth looks like a god[a]!” Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 Aramaic like a son of the gods.

ESV: "... the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods."

CEV: "... fourth one looks like a god." [a] Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 a god: Aramaic, " a son of the gods."

NIV: "... the fourth looks like a son of the gods."

TNIV: "... the fourth looks like a son of the gods."

HCSB: "... the fourth looks like a son of the gods."

NCV: "... The fourth man looks like a son of the gods."

MSG: "... the fourth man looks like a son of the gods!"

AMP: ... the form of the fourth is like a son of the gods!

DAR: ... the appearance of the fourth is like a son of God. 

Only the Nkjv even comes close, but contradicts their choice in their footnote:

Nkjv: "... the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”[a] Footnotes: Daniel 3:25 Or a son of the gods

Why would the modern version translators choose virtually unanimously to make the God who preserved the three Hebrew children through the fiery furnace to be the pagan, Babylonian gods of Nebuchadnezzar? What possibly could be their motive and inspiration to choose so?

This one example exposes the infidelity and satanic inspiration of the modern versions. We are left with either the KJB or NOTHING.